Take a single, important issue - vetting of immigrants from countries that have produced most radical terrorists:
1) Most people would agree that we don't want to restrict good and decent people from coming here form the countries affected.
2) Most people would agree that people coming from those countries must be vetted for ties to extremist groups, cells, or individuals
3) Most people would agree that we do not want people coming here who cannot be properly identified.
4) Most people would agree that the US should provide humanitarian assistance to those in nations besieged by ethnic and religious cleansing, and where groups like ISIS have seized control ... You would think that one side wants every Latino who crosses the border illegally to remain here.
I do have a couple of puzzling question with regard to my abridging your longer quote above. Let me start with the 9th circuit court of appeals opinion on the executive order on temp travel ban "that even those unlawfully present in the country have certain due process rights with respect to immigration. The Court cites Zadvydas v. Davis, 533 U.S. 678, 695 (2001) for the proposition that even aliens who have committed and been convicted of certain crimes while in the U.S. unlawfully may have due process rights with respect to travel to or from the United States. In addition, the Court ventures curiously into its own role in reviewing a President's national security conclusions" (statement by Trey Gowdy). With regard to your last sentence (above), well this court is saying that about illegals, but isn't that a serious breach of interpretation of constitutional law? But I guess the Supreme Court will set them straight but they have achieved their immediate objective.
Second, with respect to national and sub-national security, and akin to vetting people coming from other countries with possible, potential and real criminal/terror backgrounds (Latino, Arab, Asian, etc.) that may accentuate security concerns, isn't that very similar to extensively vetting citizens (as a result of the Brady Act) prior to purchasing firearms (often called by the very people who are vehemently anti-gun
and whose main objective is banning guns) because of exactly same security concerns? Seems like a double standard to me, but would be happy to learn that I am wrong.